CTPRP Trainingsmaterialien: Certified Third-Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) & CTPRP Lernmittel & Shared Assessments CTPRP Quiz

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Shared Assessments CTPRP Quiz - CTPRP Studienanleitung & CTPRP Trainingsmaterialien

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Shared Assessments Certified Third-Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) CTPRP Prüfungsfragen mit Lösungen (Q274-Q279):

274. Frage
Which of the following is typically NOT included within the scape of an organization's network access policy?

A. Firewall settings
B. Website privacy consent banners
C. Remote access
D. Unauthorized device detection

Antwort: B

Begründung:
A network access policy is a set of rules and conditions that define how authorized users and devices can access the network resources and services of an organization. It typically includes the following elements12:
* Firewall settings: These are the rules that control the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on the source, destination, protocol, and port of the packets. Firewall settings help to protect the network from unauthorized or malicious access, and to enforce the network security policy of the organization.
* Unauthorized device detection: This is the process of identifying and preventing unauthorized devices from accessing the network. Unauthorized devices can pose a security risk to the network, as they may not comply with the security standards and policies of the organization, or they may be compromised by malware or hackers. Unauthorized device detection can be done by using various methods, such as network access control (NAC), network admission control (NAC), or 802.1X authentication.
* Remote access: This is the ability of authorized users to access the network resources and services of the organization from a remote location, such as a home office, a hotel, or a public hotspot. Remote access can be provided by using various technologies, such as virtual private networks (VPNs), remote desktop services (RDS), or remote access services (RAS). Remote access requires a secure and reliable connection, and it must comply with the network access policy of the organization.
* Website privacy consent banners: These are the messages that appear on websites to inform the visitors about the use of cookies and other tracking technologies, and to obtain their consent for such use.
Website privacy consent banners are part of the website privacy policy, which is a legal document that discloses how the website collects, uses, and protects the personal data of the visitors. Website privacy consent banners are not related to the network access policy of the organization, as they do not affect how the users and devices can access the network resources and services of the organization.
Therefore, the correct answer is C. Website privacy consent banners, as they are typically not included within the scope of an organization's network access policy. References:
* 1: Network Policy Server (NPS) | Microsoft Learn
* 2: Network Access Policy | University Policies

275. Frage
Which statement BEST reflects the factors that help you determine the frequency of cyclical assessments?

A. Vendor assessment frequency may need to be changed if the vendor has disclosed a data breach
B. Vendor assessment frequency should be based on the level of risk and criticality of the vendor to your operations as determined by their vendor risk score
C. Vendor assessments should be scheduled based on the type of services/products provided
D. Vendor assessments should be conducted during onboarding and then be replaced by continuous monitoring

Antwort: B

Begründung:
The frequency of cyclical assessments is one of the key factors that determines the effectiveness and efficiency of a TPRM program. Cyclical assessments are periodic reviews of the vendor's performance, compliance, and risk posture that are conducted after the initial onboarding assessment. The frequency of cyclical assessments should be aligned with the organization's risk appetite and tolerance, and should reflect the level of risk and criticality of the vendor to the organization's operations. A common approach to determine the frequency of cyclical assessments is to use a vendor risk score, which is a numerical value that represents the vendor's inherent and residual risk based on various criteria, such as the type, scope, and complexity of the services or products provided, the vendor's security and privacy controls, the vendor's compliance with relevant regulations and standards, the vendor's past performance and incident history, and the vendor's business continuity and disaster recovery capabilities. The vendor risk score can be used to categorize the vendors into different risk tiers, such as high, medium, and low, and assign appropriate frequencies for cyclical assessments, such as annually, biannually, or quarterly. For example, a high-risk vendor may require an annual assessment, while a low-risk vendor may require a biannual or quarterly assessment. The vendor risk score and the frequency of cyclical assessments should be reviewed and updated regularly to account for any changes in the vendor's risk profile or the organization's risk appetite.
The other three statements do not best reflect the factors that help you determine the frequency of cyclical assessments, as they are either too rigid, too vague, or too reactive. Statement A implies that vendor assessments are only necessary during onboarding and can be replaced by continuous monitoring afterwards.
However, continuous monitoring alone is not sufficient to ensure the vendor's compliance and risk management, as it may not capture all the aspects of the vendor's performance and risk posture, such as contractual obligations, service level agreements, audit results, and remediation actions. Therefore, vendor assessments should be conducted during onboarding and at regular intervals thereafter, complemented by continuous monitoring. Statement C suggests that vendor assessments should be scheduled based on the type of services or products provided, without considering the other factors that may affect the vendor's risk level and criticality, such as the vendor's security and privacy controls, the vendor's compliance with relevant regulations and standards, the vendor's past performance and incident history, and the vendor's business continuity and disaster recovery capabilities. Therefore, statement C is too vague and does not provide a clear and consistent basis for determining the frequency of cyclical assessments. Statement D indicates that vendor assessment frequency may need to be changed if the vendor has disclosed a data breach, implying that the frequency of cyclical assessments is only adjusted in response to a negative event. However, this approach is too reactive and may not prevent or mitigate the impact of the data breach, as the vendor's risk level and criticality may have already increased before the data breach occurred. Therefore, statement D does not reflect a proactive and risk-based approach to determining the frequency of cyclical assessments. References:
* Third-Party Risk Management 101: Guiding Principles
* Mastering the TPRM Lifecycle
* Third Party Risk Management Maturity Assessment

276. Frage
The business unit relationship owner is crucial in the __________ plan approval process.

A. implementation
B. remediation
C. assessment
D. completion

Antwort: B

Begründung:
The term "remediation" fills this blank correctly as the business unit relationship owner is integral in the remediation plan approval process, overseeing the corrections needed to address any deficiencies found during the risk assessment.

277. Frage
Which of the following indicators is LEAST likely to trigger a reassessment of an existing vendor?

A. Change in vendor location or use of new fourth parties
B. Change in scope of existing work (e.g., new data or system access)
C. Change at outsourcer due to M&A
D. Change in regulation that impacts service provider requirements

Antwort: C

Begründung:
This answer is correct because a change at outsourcer due to merger and acquisition (M&A) is the least likely indicator to trigger a reassessment of an existing vendor. This is because the outsourcer is not the direct vendor of the organization, but rather a third party that the vendor uses to perform some of its services. Therefore, the impact of the change at the outsourcer on the vendor's performance and risk level may not be significant or immediate. However, the other indicators (A, B, and C) are more likely to trigger a reassessment of an existing vendor, as they directly affect the vendor's operations, capabilities, and compliance status. For example:
* A change in vendor location or use of new fourth parties may introduce new risks such as geopolitical, regulatory, or cybersecurity risks that need to be evaluated and mitigated.
* A change in scope of existing work may alter the vendor's access to the organization's data or systems, which may require additional security measures and controls to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information assets.
* A change in regulation that impacts service provider requirements may impose new obligations or standards on the vendor that need to be verified and monitored to ensure compliance and avoid penalties or fines. References:
* How to Conduct a Successful Vendor Risk Assessment in 9 Steps, Case IQ
* Why You Need to Reassess Vendor Risk on an Ongoing Basis, ThirdPartyTrust
* Vendor Assessment and Evaluation Guide, Smartsheet

278. Frage
Which of the following changes to the production environment is typically NOT subject to the change control process?

A. Update to application
B. Change to administrator access
C. Change in network
D. Change in systems

Antwort: B

Begründung:
Changes to administrator access are typically not subject to the traditional change control process, as they often pertain to user access management rather than modifications to the production environment's infrastructure or applications. Administrator access changes involve granting, altering, or revoking administrative privileges to systems, which is managed through access control policies and procedures rather than through change control. Change control processes are primarily concerned with changes to the network, systems, and applications that could affect the production environment's stability, security, and functionality.
In contrast, managing administrative access is part of identity and access management (IAM), which focuses on ensuring that only authorized individuals have access to specific levels of information and system functionality.
References:
* Access control and identity management best practices, such as those outlined in NIST SP 800-53 (Security and Privacy Controls for Federal Information Systems and Organizations), emphasize the separation of duties and least privilege principles, which guide the management of administrator access changes.
* Resources like "Access Control Systems and Methodology" from ISC's CISSP Common Body of Knowledge provide guidelines on effectively managing access to prevent unauthorized access and maintain system security.

279. Frage
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